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· Answered by Relief Capital Funding Desk
The question
We own our equipment outright and have no debt, but our margins are thin and last year was close to break-even. One broker told me we look great and another told me we would not qualify anywhere. Which one is right?
Both, because they are describing two different lending models. Cash-flow lenders — banks, most SBA lenders, most term lenders — underwrite your ability to service debt out of earnings, and a break-even year is a serious problem for them. Asset lenders underwrite what they can recover, and equipment owned free and clear is precisely what they want to see.
The dividing line is usually debt service coverage. A cash-flow lender typically wants earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization to cover total debt service by about 1.25 times; near break-even that ratio sits under 1.0 no matter how the add-backs are argued. An asset lender does not run that test the same way — it orders an appraisal, applies a forced-liquidation discount, and lends against the result, often 50% to 70% of that value on machinery.
“Collateral tells a lender what it can recover. Cash flow tells it whether it will ever have to.”
The warning is that asset lending is more expensive and less forgiving. You are pledging equipment you currently own outright, which converts your most flexible position into collateral, and a missed payment reaches the machines that make your product. Do that for a specific, time-boxed reason — not to plug an ongoing margin gap.
In practice the honest sequence is to fix the margin story first, because one clean quarter changes this answer materially. If the need is immediate, Asset-Based Lending or Equipment Financing against the owned machinery is the realistic route. Call the desk with a current equipment list and last year's return and we will tell you which model you are actually in.
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